10 exam-style questions with answers and explanations, straight from our 1,050-question bank. Tap an answer to check yourself. When you're ready, take the scored version in the free practice test.
These 10 free ATP questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Assistive Technology Professional blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.
Domain 1: Assessment of Need 29% of exam
Question 1
A Part 121 flag flight is scheduled for 5 hours. The destination is served only by a straight-in ILS with published minimums of 300 feet HAT and 1 1/2 statute miles; circling is not authorized. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, the forecast is a 2,500-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility. Under 14 CFR 121.621, is an alternate airport required in the dispatch release?
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Correct answer: C - Yes, the forecast visibility is below the required 3 1/2 statute miles
Question 2
A turbojet is released for a Part 121 flag operation from Los Angeles to Sydney. Beyond the fuel needed to fly to the destination and then to the most distant alternate listed in the flight release, what additional fuel does 14 CFR 121.645(b) require?
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Correct answer: D - 10 percent of the time to the destination, plus 30 minutes of holding
Question 3
Recovering from a wake turbulence encounter at an airspeed below design maneuvering speed (VA), a pilot applies full left rudder, then rapidly reverses to full right rudder. Regarding the resulting structural loads, which statement is correct?
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Correct answer: A - Reversals can exceed the structural design limits at any speed, including below VA
Question 4
A lineholder who is not acclimated reports for an unaugmented flight duty period at 0700, based on the local time of the theater in which the crewmember was last acclimated. The FDP is scheduled for 4 flight segments. Under 14 CFR 117.13 and Table B, what is the maximum flight duty period?
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Correct answer: B - 12 hours 30 minutes
Question 5
As a swept-wing transport climbs toward its aerodynamic ceiling at a constant weight, the low-speed buffet and high-speed buffet boundaries converge. Which statement explains why?
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Correct answer: B - Stall speed in IAS holds roughly constant, while MMO expressed in IAS falls off
Question 6
Under a standard OpSpec C055 authorization, a proposed alternate has two operational navigation facilities serving straight-in approaches to different suitable runways. The authorized landing minimums are 250 feet HAT with 3/4 statute mile, and 400 feet HAT with 1 statute mile. What are the derived alternate weather minimums?
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Correct answer: D - 600 feet and 1 1/2 statute miles
Question 7
Descending on an arrival, a crew is cleared to 'maintain 11,000.' Passing 11,400 feet they receive a TCAS II resolution advisory commanding a climb. What is the correct action?
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Correct answer: B - Follow the advisory, then tell ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable
Question 8
Under 14 CFR 121.542, which of the following is a critical phase of flight during which the sterile flight deck rule applies?
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Correct answer: C - Descending through 9,000 feet on an arrival
Domain 3: Implementation of Intervention (Once Funded) 23% of exam
Question 9
Main tire pressure is 169 psi. Using the NASA rotating-tire relationship, at approximately what groundspeed should the crew expect dynamic hydroplaning to begin on a flooded runway?
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Correct answer: D - 117 knots
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Question 10
An aircraft flies a published approach segment at an airport reporting minus 30 degrees Celsius, and no cold temperature correction is applied. What is the effect on the aircraft's actual height above terrain?
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Correct answer: C - It is lower than the indicated altitude, so obstacle clearance is reduced